With
this question I want to initiate series of reflections about the
construction of a separate, not discussed here before, methodology of
the speculations on derivatives. The practical realization of this
idea, which I will develop in subsequent posts, will be carried out
using the methods and achievements of the modern theory of portfolio
selection. One of the concepts operating within it is known as CAPM, i.e. Capital Asset Pricing Model. The model mentioned here
was originally formulated for equity portfolios, and naturally is
followed by the idea - good or bad - to transplant its prey on the
ground of derivative instruments, including Forex.
Any
idea can be looked at in two ways - either enthusiastically or
critically. This first look is the prerogative of the creator, but it
happens that from the beginning he is skeptical of his work. However,
there is no shortage of criticism against both the CAPM model and its
use in the derivatives market. Recently, searching text resources
devoted to the construction of intelligent trading strategies, I came
across a very interesting post.
On the other hand, not so long ago, I heard from fellow investor, who
is operating on the basis of fundamental analysis methods (and I can
go ahead and call him an expert in his field of action) that CAPM
pricing model does not appeal to him. Almost verbatim quoting his
words: "it is somehow vague and fuzzy."
The
fuzzy systems - but understood very differently, because in terms of
a formal Fuzzy Logic methodology - we'll be discussing with
completely different occasions. But now, in order to advertise the
issue, I will write just a handful of questions related to CAPM+Forex
topic, which I hurled myself into the mouth.
- CAPM model applies to stock markets, where profit is achieved only as a result of an increase in stock prices. Can I move it to the derivatives market?
- What is the equivalent of the market portfolio? For the case of equity portfolios generally used are appropriate indices. Is there a market index for Forex?
- In this model, there is - as a parameter - the risk free rate of return. How do I specify it in the case of financial instruments of various nature and denominated in different currencies?
These
questions are just the tip of the iceberg, what is the issue of the
transfer of portfolio theory for the Forex market. I plan to drill
down further into the icy rock. And because this is probably not the
first approach to the subject, I await with curiosity voices in the
discussion.
Interesting questions... I was evaluating use CAPM at forex and found this post that mame me think a little more. Thanks
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